Bible Commentary

Matthew 13:34

The Pulpit Commentary on Matthew 13:34

The Pulpit Commentary · Joseph S. Exell and contributors · Public domain

All these things ( ταῦτα πάντα). All seems to imply that the four preceding parables are but a few typical ones taken from a larger collection. Spake Jesus unto the multitude in parables; in parables unto the multitudes (Revised Version); for the order of the Greek is the same as in the next clause.

Observe the "parallelism" of the two clauses. Is it due to the influence of Hebrew Christians? And without a parable spake he not (nothing, Revised Version, ebony) unto them, As happens often in Semitic writers (cf.

St. John's Gospel), the thought of the preceding clause is now expressed negatively, and yet a fresh thought is added, namely, that he spake in parables alone. Nothing (Revised Version); i.e. under these circumstances, when large crowds of Galilaeans were listening to him.

Spake ( ἐλάλει: contrast ἐλάλησεν before); i.e. during this period.

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